The format of the forest guard question paper may vary depending on the specific exam conducting body. However, it typically consists of multiple-choice questions (MCQs) and short answer questions. Some exams may also include essay questions.
How to prepare for the forest guard question paper
To prepare for the forest guard question paper, candidates should:
- Study the syllabus thoroughly: Make sure you are familiar with the topics that will be covered on the exam.
- Practice with previous year question papers: This will help you to understand the format of the exam and the types of questions that are asked.
- Take mock tests: Mock tests can help you to identify your strengths and weaknesses and improve your time management skills.
Arithmetic – Forest Guard Question Paper
For each of the questions below, choose the best answer from the four choices given. You may use the paper you received as scratch paper.
Arithmetic
For each of the questions below, choose the best answer from the four choices given. You may use the paper you received as scratch paper.
Arithmetic
For each of the questions below, choose the best answer from the four choices given. You may use the paper you received as scratch paper.
1. 2.75 + .003 + .158 =
- 4.36
- 2.911
- 0.436
- 2.938
2.911
2. 7.86 × 4.6 =
- 36.156
- 36.216
- 351.56
- 361.56
36.156
3. 7 /20 =
- 0.035
- 0.858
- 0.35
- 3.5
0.35
4. Which of the following is the least?
- 0.105
- 0.501
- 0.015
- 0.15
0.015
5. All of the following are ways to write 25 percent of N EXCEPT for:
- 0.25 N
- 25N / 100
- 1/4 N
- 25 N
25 N
6. Which of the following is closest to 27.8 × 9.6?
- 280
- 300
- 2,800
- 3,000
280
7. A soccer team played 160 games and won 65 percent of them. How many games did it win?
- 94
- 104
- 114
- 124
104
8. Three people who work full-time are to work together on a project, but their total time on the project is to be equivalent to that of only one person working full-time. If one of the people is budgeted for one-half of his time to the project and a second person for one-third of her time, what part of the third worker’s time should be budgeted to this project?
- 1/3
- 3/5
- 1/6
- 1/8
1/6
9. 32 is 40 percent of what number?
- 12.8
- 128
- 80
- 800
80
10. 3 1/3 – 2 2/5 =
- 1 1/2
- 1/15
- 14/15
- 1 1/15
14/15
11. 2 ½ + 4 2/3 =
- 6 1/6
- 6 5/6
- 7 1/6
- 7 5/6
7 1/6
12. What is (1,345)/ (99) rounded to the nearest integer?
- 12
- 13
- 14
- 15
14
13. Three of four numbers have a sum of 22. If the average of the four numbers is 8, what is the fourth number?
- 4
- 6
- 8
- 10
10
14. 46.2 × 10-2 =
- 0.0462
- 0.462
- 4.62
- 462
0.462
15. If (3/2) ÷(1/4)= n, then n is between
- 1 and 3
- 3 and 5
- 5 and 7
- 7 and 9
5 and 7
16. What is 12% of 120?
- 10
- 14.4
- 18.4
- 28.8
14.4
17. A box in a college bookstore contains books, and each book in the box is a history book, an English book or a science book. If one-third of these books are history books and one-sixth are English books, what fraction of the books are science books?
- 1/3
- 1/2
- 2/3
- ¾
1/2
18. The measures of two angles of a triangle are 35° and 45°. What is the measure of the third angle of the triangle?
- 95°
- 100°
- 105°
- 110°
100°
19. Erica bought 3 ½ yards of fabric. If she uses 2/3 of the fabric to make a curtain, how much will she have left?
- 1/6 yd.
- 1/3 yd.
- 1 1/6 yd.
- 2 1/3 yd.
1 1/6 yd.
20. Jen wants to tile the floor of her kitchen. The floor is rectangular and measures 12 feet by 8 feet. If it costs $2.50 per square foot for the materials, what is the total cost of the materials for tiling the kitchen floor?
- $160
- $200
- $220
- $240
$240
General Awareness Forest Guard Question Paper
01-Which of the following countries has decided to purchase 126 Rafale fighter air-crafts from France?
A) Iraq
B) China
C) Bangladesh
D) Afghanistan
E) India
02- Which of the following diseases is considered as completely eradicated from India, as no case of the same has been reported in last one year?
1) Polio
2) Tuberculosis
3) Cancer
4) Swine flu
5) Asthma
03- Which of the following countries in India’s neighbourhood is facing charges of violation of human rights of Tamilians living there?
1) Sri Lanka
2) Myanmar
3) Afghanistan
4) Pakistan
5) Nepal
04- Which of the following is NOT an important function of Reserve Bank of India?
1) Management of Foreign Exchange Reserves
2) Foreign Exchange related current and capital account management
3) Devising Foreign Trade policy of India
4) Debt and Cash Management for State Govts
5) Regulation of Govt. Securities
05- Ms. Kamla Persad Bissessar who was on a visit to India recently is the
1) President of Trinidad & Tobago
2) Prime Minister of Trinidad & Tobago
3) President of Fiji
4) Prime Minister of Fiji
5) None of these
06- Which of the following statements pertaining to present economic situation of the world is/are true?
1) China and India are making very good progress on the economic front, thought India is a little slower than China
2) UK and almost all European nations are now out of economic crisis
3) US has decided to give 3 lakh thousand US dollars to Iraq as a compensation for its unnecessary attack on it
4) As WTO is abolished, countries are free to make their own economic coop- eration treaties
5) All are true
07- India recently signed a Multilateral Convention on Mutual Administrative Assistance in Tax Matters. This will help India in having a strict check on which of the following issues?
1) Nuclear safety of its plants
2) Illegal supply of narcotics and drugs
3) Balance of trade
4) Black money stashed abroad
5) Border trade among SAARC nations
08- Which of the following organisations of countries, at one of its crucial meetings in Belgium, in December 2011, had agreed to sign an Inter-governmental Fiscal Treaty?
1) OPEC
2) SAARC
3) European Union
4) BRICS 5) NATO
09- Business Correspondent Framework launched by the Reserve Bank of India is a step in achieving which of the following?
1) Financial inclusion
2) Transparency in banking transactions
3) Better control over cooperative/small banks
4) Providing direct subsidy to consumers of Publc Distribution System (PDS)
5) None of these
10- Immediately prior to Sri Mukul roy who among the following was the Railway Minister of India?
1) Dr. Manmohan Singh
2) Sri Kamal Nath
3) Ms. Mamta Banerjee
4) Sri Rajiv Shukla
5) Sri Dinesh Trivedi
11- Nuclear Threat Initiative, the organisation which has compiled first ever index of security materials globally, is an agency based in
1) India
2) USA
3) Japan
4) Germany
5) China
12- Who among the following was the Chief Guest at India’s 63rd Republic Day (2012) function?
1) Kamla Persad Bissessar
2) Yingluck Shinawatra
3) David Cameron
4) Hamid Karzai
5) Sheikh Hasina
13- The 169th meeting of the Organization of Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC) was organised in December 2011 in
1) Doha
2) Dubai
3) Vienna
4) Tehran
5) Beirut
14- The term of President Pratibha Patil in office will end in
1) July 2012
2) June 2013
3) January 2013
4) July 2013
5) January 2014
15- India played Border-Gavaskar Test series cricket matches in January 2012 with
1) New Zealand
2) England
3) Australia
4) South Africa
5) Kenya
16– Which of the following organisations has recommended that financial literacy should be made part of syllabus from high schools itself?
1) Securities & Exchange Board of India (SEBI)
2) Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
3) Indian Bank’s Association (IBA)
4) National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD)
5) State Bank of India
17–Ranbir Kapoor won Best Actor Award in 57th Filmfare Award functions for his film
1) Wake up Sid
2) Rock Star
3) Anjana Anjanee
4) Rajneeti
5) Rocket Singh: Salesman of the Year
18- Prime Minister of India was in Russia on a three day visit in December 2011 to attend
1) G-20 Summit
2) G-8 Summit
3) Festival of India
4) India – Russia Summit
5) WTO Summit
19- Who among the following is a Padma Bhushan Awardee?
1) Anand Kumar
2) Shiva Keshavan
3) Vijay Zol
4) Homi K Bhabha
5) Dipika Pallikal
20- Which of the following days is observed as AIDS Day every Year?
1) 10th March
2) 1st December
3) 10th December
4) 1st November
5) 1st March
21- Who among the following won 12th Asian Shooting(Rifle) championship organ- ised in Doha in January 2012?
1) Tao Wang
2) Qinan Zhu
3) Shriyanka Sadangi
4) Anjali Bhagwat
5) Abinav Bindra
22- Which of the following terms is used in the field of Economics?
1) Ampere
2) Horse Power
3) Relative Density
4) Arbitrage
5) Joule’s Law
23- Wasim Jaffer’s name was in news recently. He is a well known
1) Chess player
2) Table Tennis player
3) Lawn Tennis player
4) Golf player
5) Cricket player
24- Who among the following is the Chief Justice of India at present?
1) Justice Sujata Manohar
2) Justice Altamas Kabir
3) Justice G S Singhvi
4) Justice S H Kapadia
5) None of these
25- Which of the following represents present Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR)?
1) 5%
2) 4.75%
3) 5.25%
4) 4.50%
5) None of these
26- During 20th – 22nd June 2012, the ‘Earth Summit’ will take place in
1) New York
2) Paris
3) Rio De Janerio
4) Washington DC
5) Tokyo
27- Who among the following is one of the winners of Nobel Peace Prize for 2011?
1) Edmund S Phelps
2) Akira Suzuki
3) Tawakkol Karman
4) Finn E Kydland
5) Richard F Heck
28- Which of the following organisations is the regulator of stock exchanges in India?
1) RBI
2) SIDBI
3) SEBI
4) NABARD
5) IBA
29- Which of the following schemes is launched by the Govt of India to provide banking services in 73,000 villages in India?
1) ASHA
2) Swabiman
3) Kutir Jyoti
4) RAY
5) Swavalamban
30- What does the letter ‘D’ denote in the term ‘SDR’? (as used in finance)
1) Deposits
2) Data
3) Drawing
4) Debt
5) Dealers
31- Which of the following awards is given to sportspersons?
1) Kalidas Samman
2) Saraswati Samman
3) Ashok Chakra
4) Arjuna Award
5) Vysa Samman
32- Who among the following is the President of France at present?
1) Dimitry Medvedev
2) Nicolas Sarkozy
3) Rupert Murdoch
4) Silvio Berlusconi
5) None of these
33- Which of the following books is written by Kiran Desai?
1) A Brush With Life
2) A Fortune Teller Told Me
3) Black Arrow
4) Catch-22
5) The Inheritance of Loss
34- Which of the following cups/trophies is associated with the game of cricket?
1) Davis Cup
2) Agha Khan Cup
3) Wimbledon Cup
4) Nehru Cup
5) Ranji Trophy
35- Russia is now a member of which of the following organisations and will be inducted formally from 15th july 2012?
1) G-20
2) G-8
3) UN Security Council
4) World Trade Organisation
5) OPEC
36- Total Gross National Product divided by the total population is known as which of the following in economics?
1) Statutory Liquidity Ratio
2) Inflation
3) National Income
4) Deflation
5) Per Capita Income
37- Which of the following is a highlight of the Union Budget 2012-13?
1) GDP growth projected at 9% level
2) Direct Tax Bill to be introduced in 2014-15
3) FDI in retail will be allowed from 2015
4) Marginal increase in personal income tax limits
5) No new scheme in health sector will be launched
38- which of the following terms is used in the game of football?
1) Penalty
2) Cover Point
3) Cox
4) Bull’s Eye
5) Half Nelson
39- Which of the following combinations of the name of countries and their capitals is NOT correct?
1) Bangladesh – Dhaka
2) Afghanistan – Kabul
3) Canada – Ottawa
4) China – Beijing
5) Italy – Milan
40- Which of the following instruments is used to measure intensity of earthquakes?
1) Seismograph
2) Periscope
3) Manometer
4) Galvano meter
5) Dynamometer
Reasoning Ability Forest Guard Question Paper
Directions : In each question given below are two/three statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the two/three given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follow from the given statements, disregarding commonly known facts. Give answer
1) if only conclusion I follows
2) if only conclusion II follows
3) if either conclusion I or conclusion II follows
4) if neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows
5) if both conclusion I and conclusion II follow
01- Statements: No corner is a side. All sides are ends.
Conclusions:
I. No end is a corner
II. All ends are sides
02- Statements: All questions are answers.
All answers are replies. All replies are inquiries.
Conclusions:
I. All answers are inquiries.
II. All replies are questions.
03- Statements: All planets are stars.
My Airtel Number: No star is a moon
Conclusions:
I. Some moons are planets.
II. No planet is a moon
04- Statements: Some laws are rules
All rules are sentences.
Conclusions:
I. At least some sentences are laws.
II. At least some rules are laws.
05- Statements: Some kites are birds
Some birds are animals
Conclusions:
I. No animal is a kite
II. Some animals are definitely not birds
Directions : Study the following information to answer the given questions:
In a certain code ‘answer it right’ is written as ‘baja nu’,
‘where is it’ is written as ‘fi ba to’,.
‘right from here’ is written as ‘sa vi ja’; and
‘here she is’ is written as ‘fi sa ho’.
06– Which of the following may represent ‘absolutely right answer’?
1) ja nu vi 2) ko zi nu 3) nu ko ja
4) nu ja fi 5) zi ba nu
07- What is the code for ‘from’?
1) sa 2) vi 3) ja
4) ba 5) Either ‘vi’ or ‘ba’
08- What is the code for ‘is’?
1) ba 2) to 3) fi
4) ho 5) can not be determined
09- What is the code for ‘she’?
1) fi 2) sa 3) ho
4) ja 5) Cannot be determined
10- What does the code ‘sa’ stand for?
1) here 2) from 3) she
4) right 5) Either ‘from’ or ‘is’
Directions : Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions
A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a circular table facing the centre but
not necessarily in the same order.
★ C is an immediate neighbour of both G and A. E sits second to the left of C.
★ Two people sit betwen E and H
★ B is an immediate neighbour of G. Only one person sits between B and F.
11- What is the position of D with respect to H in the above arrangement?
1) Third to the left 2) Immediate left 3) Fifth to the right
4) Immediate right 5) Second to the right
12- Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and thus form a group.
Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
1) CH 2) FE 3) AB
4) GF 5) DC
13-Who sits second to the left of A?
1) F 2) B 3) D
4) H 5) Cannot be determined
14-Who among the following is an immediate neighbour of both B and F?
1) G 2) C 3) D
4) A 5) H
15- B is related to E in a certain way based on the given seating arrangement. In the
same way A is related to H. To whom amongst the following is D related to, fol-lowing the same pattern?
1) B 2) C 3) A
4) G 5) F
Directions : In these questions, the relationship between different elements is shown in the statements. The statements are followed by two conclusions. Give answer
1) if only conclusion I is true
2) if only conclusion II is true
3) if either conclusion I or II is true
4) if neither conclusion I nor II is true
5) if both conclusions I and II are true.
16- Statements: F< R ≥ O = M ≤ T = K
Conclusions: I. K ≥ O II. F > M
17- Statements: G = N ≤ O ≥ P > Q = R
Conclusions: I. O > R II. P ≤ G
18- Statements: F < O = L ≤ W = S
Conclusions: I. W ≤ F II. O ≥ S
19- Statements: B = R ≥ T < O = P ≥ S
Conclusions: I. B < O II. T < S
20- Statements: P > Q ≥ A < R = I
Conclusions: I. A < P II. I > A
Directions : Study the following information to answer the given questions:
P, Q, R, S, T, V and W are sitting in a straight line facing north but not necessarily in the same order. R sits third to the left of W. Neither R nor W sits at extreme ends of the line. Only one person sits between R and T. S is not an immediate neighbour of either R or W. Two people sit betwen T and P. Q is an immediate neighbour of S.
21- Who amongst the following sits exactly between R and T?
1) P
2) Q
3) V
4) S
5) None of these
22- How many persons are sitting between P and W?
1) One
2) Two
3) Three
4) Four
5) More than four
23-What is the position of T with respect to Q?
1) Third to the left 2) Fourth to the right
3) Second to the right 4) Second to the left
5) Immediate left
24- Which of the following pairs represents persons sitting at two extreme ends of the line?
1) S, V
2) P, S
3)T, V
4) P, Q
5) P, T
25- Which of the following is true with respect to the given arrangement?
1) Two people sit to the left of R.
2) S sits to the immediate left of Q.
3) W and V sit between T and P.
4) Only one person sits to the right of S.
5) None is true
Marketing Aptitude And Computer Knowledge : Forest Guard Question Paper
A ‘Call’ in marketing jargon means
1) a phone call
2) browsing the net
3) to call on a prospect
4) a call centre
5) a place of worship
The task of marketing involves
1) opening new branches
2) buying a company
3) selling a company
4) selling products and services of a company
5) mergers
Service Marketing is the same as
1) relationship marketing
2) transaction marketing
3) passive marketing
4) internal marketing
5) instant marketing
‘Conversion’ means
1) to convert losses in to profits
2) to convert profits into losses
3) to change a product suitably to suit each customer
4) to convert a prospect into a buyer
5) selling products and services of a company
The type of marketing involved in banks is
1) transactions marketing
2) service marketing
3) commodity marketing
4) ruthless marketing
5) indifferent marketing
Market space means
1) place where goods are sold
2) trade fairs and meals
3) road shows
4) scope avilable for selling
5) competition
A ‘lead’ means
1) a leash
2) a leader
3) an interested buyer
4) ADSA
5) a cold call
ADSA’s (Direct Selling Agent’s) main job is
1) to design products
2) to sell to the target group
3) to do market survey
4) to distribute profits
5) to earn incentives
Transaction marketing involves selling of
1) mere goods
2) mere services
3) ideas and thoughts
4) repair work
5) after – sales service
A ‘Prospect’ means
1) newly designed product
2) a team leader
3) a likely buyer
4) ATM usage
5) internet transaction
Marketing techniques include
1) good arguing skills
2) good joking skills
3) effective negotiation skills
4) walking skills
5) story telling skills
Service marketing implies selling of
1) only goods
2) only services
3) web servers
4) various commodities
5) goods and services
Marketing channels means
1) outlets from where sales take place
2) channel finacing
3) focusing sales on one single group
4) home delivery
5) courier service
Market share means
1) share capital of the company
2) staff strength of the company
3) employees stock option
4) share price quoted in the market
5) percentage share of business of the company, as compared to peers
The target group for tractor loans is
1) cold storge plants
2) farmers with large landholding
3) farm labourers
4) agriculture Colleges
5) vegetable vendors
“Cross-selling” means
1) selling to enemies
2) selling new products
3) reversal of a sale
4) selling other products existing customers
5) public relations
The target group for an ATM-cum-Debit Card is
1) all primary school children
2) all prisoners
3) firms
4) all existing and prospective customers
5) other bank’s customers
The target group for a car loan is
1) all high income individuals
2) all car dealers
3) all students
4) all BPL persons
5) blind persons
A Savings Account with insurance benefit is
1) a long term loan account
2) a running overdraft facility
3) a non-fund facility
4) a type of remittance facility
5) a value-added deposit account
The leads for a car loan can be had from
1) car manfacturing companies
2) car dealers
3) car owners
4) car mechanics
5) back office staff
Which type of memory gets lost when your switch off?
1) ROM
2) RAM
3) Cache
4) Dynamic
5) Static
What is the name of the program that controls the computer?
1) The Operating System
2) An Application Program
3) A Browser
4) The File Manager
5) The Compiler
Which type of network would use phone lines?
1) WAN
2) LAN
3) WWAN
4) Wireless
5) None of these
What type of devices are computer speakers or headphones?
1) Input
2) Input/Output
3) Software
4) Storage
5) Output
Which type of memory holds the program to start up the computer?
1) ROM
2) RAM
3) Cache
4) Static
5) None of these
A program for viewing web pages is called
1) Word Processor
2) Spreadsheet
3) Protocol
4) A browser
5) Database
The term used to describe the intangible instructions that tell the computer what to do is
1) hardware
2) software
3) storage
4) input/output
5) None of these
A computer tower is not
1) a CPU
2) Hardware
3) the “Heart” of the computer
4) a peripheral
5) None of these
A computer cannot perform which of the following functions?
1) Addition
2) Subtraction
3) Bake a cake
4) Division
5) None of these
Which of the following has the smallest storage capacity
1) zip disk
2) hard disk
3) floppy disk
4) data cartridge
5) CD
What type of devices are CDs or DVDs?
1) Input
2) Output
3) Software
4) Storage
5) Input/Output
Why has RAM been named like this?
1) Because it is read and write memory
2) Because it is volatile memory
3) Because any of the locations in chip can directly be selected for storing and retrieving data and instructions.
4) Because it is non-volatile memory
What is the full form of URL
1) Uniform Reverse Location
2) Universal Resolution Location
3) Universal Resource Locator
4) Universal Re-enginering Location
5) United Resource Locator
Easily relocatable language is
1) Machine language
2) Assembly language
3) Low-level language
4) Medium Level language
5) High Level language
Which of the following describes the characteristic features of SRAM?
1) Cheap but slow
2) More consumption of power and much costly
3) Based on transistor – capacitor combinations
4) Low consumption of power
5) None of these
Free of cost repair of software bug available at internet is called
1) Version
2) Ad-on
3) Tutorial
4) FAR
5) Patch
Which of the following is READ only disc
1) DVD-R
2) DVD-ROM
3) DVD-RW
4) CD-R
5) None of these
Which of the following is not a computer language?
1) High level language
2) Machine language
3) Low level language
4) Medium level language
5) None of these
The speed of clock frequency of a micro processor is measured in
1) Hertz
2) Baud rate
3) CPS
4) Bits
5) Bytes
Normally which of the following is costlier?
1) Server
2) Notebook computer
3) Personal computer
4) Laptop computer
5) Main frame computer
Quantitative Aptitude
Forest Guard Question Paper – Directions :
What value should come in the place of question mark(?) in the following questions?
3.3 + 13.33 + 31.13 + 13.31 + 1.3 = ?
1) 64.31
2) 62.37
3) 64.47
4) 62.17
5) None of these
(16)2 + (21)2 – (13)2 + ? = (25)2
1) 67
2) 32
3) 81
4) 97
5) none of these
47 + 345 ÷ 15 × 2 = ?
1) 68
2) 93
3) 59
4) 71
5) None of these
73% of 5800 – 69% of 240 = ?
1) 4608.3 2
) 4210.8
3) 4008.4
4) 4680.4
5) None of these
3.2 × 2.1 × 1.6 = ?
1) 12.732
2) 10.752
3) 17.520
4) 15.270
5) None of these
65 × 15 ÷ ? = 195
1) 5
2) 2
3) 1
4) 6
5) None of these
204% of ? = 1848.24
1) 517
2) 784
3) 321
4) 906
5) None of these
9786 – 4321 + 5053 = ? – 3727
1) 14245
2) 14524
3) 14452
4) 14254
5) None of these
23 + 636 ÷ 12 – 14 = ?
1) 41
2) 53
3) 62
4) 78
5) None of these
6.5 ÷ 0.5 × 2 – 4 = ?
1) 31
2) 19
3) 22
4) 27
5) None of these
11.At what rate of simple interest will 4800 amount of 6480 in a span of 7 years?
1) 5
2) 6
3) 3
4) 4
5) None of these
12.How much will a sum of 6,300 amount to in a span of 2 years, at 5 pcpa rate of compound interest (rounded off to the nearest integer)?
1) 6946
2) 6876
3) 6521
4) 6790
5) 6492
13.In how many different ways can the letters of the word BAKERY be arranged?
1) 2400
2) 2005
3) 720
4) 5040
5) None of these
What will be the average of the following set of scores (rounded off to the nearest integer)?
62, 76, 42, 84, 21, 47, 28
1) 57
2) 54
3) 51
4) 62
5) 66
The product of three consecutive numbers is 3360. What is the least number?
1) 17
2) 14
3) 13
4) 16
5) None of these
The area of circle is 2464 square meters. What will its circumference be?
1) 132 meters
2) 176 meters
3) 232 meters
4) 272 meters
5) 109 meters
The cost of 24 pens and 13 pencils is 175. What is the cost of 48 pens and 26 pencils?
1) 435
2) 705
3) 290
4) 350
5) None of these
Directions : Study the following information and answer the questions that follow:
A sum of 10,980 is to be divided amongst A, B and C in the ratio 7 : 3 : 5
What is C’s share?
1) 3,600
2) 3,006
3) 3,060
4) 3,660
4) 3,124
What is the sum of B’s and C’s share?
1) 5,685
2) 5,865
3) 5,897
4) 5,873
5) 5,856
What is the difference between A’s and B’s share?
1) 2,196
2) 2,928
3) 2,961
4) 2,289
5) ` 2,982
If the perimeter of a rectangle is 138 metres and the difference between the length and the breadth is 7 metres, what is the area of the rectangle?
1) 1216 square meters
2) 1147 square metres
3) 1184 square metres
4) 1178 square metres
5) None of these
Directins : What should come in place of question mark(?) in the following number series?
7, 17, 54, ?, 1098, 6591
1) 204
2) 212
3) 223
4) 219
5 None of these
55, 109, ? 433, 865, 1729
1) 279
2) 372
3) 217
4) 318
5) None of these
25 . 19, 38, ?, 228, 684, 1368
1) 106
2) 114
3) 121
4) 98
5) None of these
26.87, 89, 95, 107, ?, 157
1) 127
2) 122
3) 139
4) 140
5) None of these
27.474, 459, 429, 369, 249, ?
1) 9
2) 0
3) 4
4) 11
5) None of these
10 years ago, the ages of A and B were in the ratio of 13 : 17. 17 years from now the ratio of their ages will be 10 : 11. What is the age of B at present?
1) 23 years
2) 40 years
3) 27 years
4) 44 years
5) None of these
English Language : Forest Guard Question Paper
Directions : Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is 5), i.e. ‘No Error’. (Ignore errors of punctuations, if any.)
1) Mangal Pandey was well known/ 2) because he was involved/ 3) in the initial stages/ 4) of the Indian rebellion./ 5) No Error
1) Most of the Indian populations still lives/ 2) in its villages and thus the contribution of/ 3) agriculture to Indian economy/ 4) becomes very important. 5)No Error
1) Catherine’s grandfather always/ 2) lost his balance while walking/ 3) and would be found fallen/ 4) on the road./ 5) No Error
1) Her doctor was/ 2) annoyed because she/ 3) ignore her health/ 4) even after being hospitalised twice./ 5) No Error
1) Raghav was worry/ 2) about telling his parents/ 3) that he wanted to move out/ 4) and live independently. / 5) No Error
Directions : Each question below has a blank, each blank indicating that something has been omitted. Choose the word that best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.
Rohit — a huge library and has a large collection of books in it.
1) wants
2) has
3) wanted
4) had
5) needs
Rachna liked her room to be exactly the way she left it and she would —- allow anyone to touch her things.
1) always
2) sometimes
3) willingly
4) never
5) certainly
Elephants are the largest living land animals — earth today.
1) in
2) and
3) on
4) like
5) at
Josephine was elated because the doctor confirmed the news — her pregnancy.
1) like
2) of
3) with
4) after
5) in
It — been estimated that there may be many millions of species of plants, insects and micro organisams still undiscovered in tropical rainforests.
1) have
2) will
3) should
3) has
5) shall
Directions: : Rearrange the following eight sentences/ group of sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E), (F), (G) and (H) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.
(A) During the examination, the invigilator noticed the chits and despite Rajesh’s plea for innocence asked him to leave the examination hall.
(B) At this point Ravish realised his mistake and felt guilty, so he immediately confessed his misdeed to the invigilator and left the examination hall.
(C) Rajesh forgave Ravish because Ravish had not only accepted his mistake on time but also had not let Rajesh be punished for the wrong reason.
(D) Ravish and Rajesh were in college and had been friends since childhood. However, Ravish did not trust Rajesh.
(E) Another student, Satish, who had seen Ravish hiding something in Rajesh’s desk, stood up and informed the invigilator of what he had seen.
(F) One day Ravish decided to test Rajesh’s friendship and so during one of the college examinations Ravish went early to class and hid some chits in Rajesh’s desk.
(G) Rajesh did not believe Satish, instead was furious that Satish had falsely blamed his friend and agreed that he would leave his examination only if Ravish was kept out of the matter.
(H) After the examination was over, Ravish apologised to Rajesh, and promised that he would be a good friend from then onwards.
Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement?
1) G
2) H
3) E
4) D
5) C
Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement?
1) C
2) D
3) E
4) F
5) G
Which of the following should be the EIGHTH (LAST) sentence after rearrangement?
1) A
2) B
3) C
4) D
5) E
Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement?
1) A
2) B
3) C
4) D
5) F
Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement?
1) A
2) B
3) G
4) F
5) E
Directions : Choose the word/ group of words which is most similar in meaning to the word/ group of words printed in bold as used in the passage.
RATHER
1) regular
2) quite
3) instead
4) but
5) known
RELEASE
1) free
2) vacate
3) vent
4) let expire
5) make public
REVERENCE
1) respect
2) detail
3) astonishment
4) hope
5) remembrance
Directions : Choose the word which is most OPPOSITE in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.
RELUCTANT
1) true
2) clever
3) averse
4) hesitant
5) keen
SKILFULLY
1) angrily
2) haphazardly
3) highly
4) cheaply
5) deftly
Directions : Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/ phrases have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.
A long time ago, on a big tree in the lap of a mountain, lived a bird named Sindhuka. It was a rather special bird because its droppings turned into gold as soon as they hit the ground.
One day, a hunter came to the tree in search of prey and he saw Sindhuka’s droppings hit the ground and turn into gold. The hunter was struck with wonder. He thought, “I have been hunting birds and small animals since I was a boy, but in all my 80 years, I have never seen such a miraculous creature”.
He decided that he had to catch the bird somehow. He climbed the tree and skillfully set a trap for the bird. The bird, quite unaware of the danger it was in, stayed on the tree and sang merrily. But it was soon caught in the hunter’s trap. The hunter immediately seized it and shoved it into a cage.
The hunter took the bird home joyfully. But as he had time to think over his good fortune later, he suddenly realised, “If the king comes to know of this wonder, he will certainly take away the bird from me and he might even punish me for keeping such a rare treasure all to myself. So it would be safer and more honourable if I were to go to the king and present the unique bird to him”.
The next day, the hunter took the bird to the king and presented it to him in court with great reverence. The king was delighted to receive such an unusual and rare gift. He told his courtiers to keep the bird safe and feed it with the best bird food available. The king’s prime minister, though, was reluctant to accept the bird. He said “O Rajah, how can you believe the word of a foolish hunter and accept this bird? Has anyone in our kingdom ever seen a bird dropping gold?
The hunter must be either crazy or telling lies. I think it is best that you release the bird from the cage”. After a little thought, the king felt that his prime minister’s words were correct. So he ordered the bird to be released. But as soon as the door of the cage was thrown open, the bird flew out, perched itself on a nearby doorway and defecated. To everyone’s surprise, the dropping immediately turned into gold. The king mourned his loss.
Which of the following can possibly be the most appropriate title for the story?
1) The Skilled Hunter
2) The King’s Prime Minister
3) The King’s Defeat
4) The Bird With The Gold Dropping
5) The Trials And Tribulations Of The Foolish Bird Sindhuka
Which of the following emotions made the hunter gift the bird to the king?
1) Respect
2) Joy
3) Pride
4) Fear
5) Awe
Which of the following is TRUE according to the story?
1) Birds like Sindhuka were very common in the area near the mountain.
2) Sindhuka remained caged for the rest of its life.
3) Sindhuka was unaware of the trap laid by the hunter.
4) The king, when told to not accept the bird, did not listen to his prime minister.
5) All are true.
Why was the king’s prime minister reluctant to accept the bird?
1) He believed that the bird would die if caged.
2) He knew about the hunter’s habit of lying.
3) He believed that the bird would bring bad luck to the king.
4) His sources had informed him that the hunter was crazy.
5) None of these.
How did the hunter find Sindhuka?
1) He had read stories about the bird and had set traps at various locations in the city.
2) He followed the bird’s droppings.
3) He was on the lookout for a prey when he chanced upon it.
4) People from the city had informed him about the bird’s whereabouts.
5) He was attracted by the bird’s calls.
Tips for answering the forest guard question paper
- Read each question carefully before answering: Make sure you understand the question before you start to answer it.
- Eliminate the answers that you are sure are wrong: This will make it easier to choose the correct answer.
- Use your time wisely: Answer the questions you are most confident about first and leave the more difficult questions for later.
- Don’t leave any questions blank: Even if you are not sure of the answer, it is worth guessing as there is no negative marking.
Conclusion
The forest guard previous year question paper is a challenging but achievable exam. By following the tips above, you can increase your chances of success.
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